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NEW QUESTION: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is attempting to register a Cisco TelePresence endpoint to a Cisco VCS.
What is the most likely cause of this failure?
A. The lab.local SIP domain does not exist on the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS failed to bind to the LDAP server, which is where the lab.local SIP domain is learned.
C. The endpoint uses the TCP protocol and the Cisco VCS is configured to allow only TLS for SIP registrations.
D. The endpoint does not have the proper port assignments configured for SIP signaling.
E. The lab.local SIP domain is not configured in the Cisco VCS allow list for registration.
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. dial peers
B. voice translation rules
C. partitions and calling search spaces
D. COR
E. route patterns
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_0_2/ccmsys/accm802-cm/a03ptcss.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/8_6_1/ccmcfg/bccm861-cm/b03rtpat.html

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which of the following is BEST used as a secure replacement for TELNET?
A. GPG
B. SSH
C. HTTPS
D. HMAC
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.
Incorrect Answers:
A. HTTPS provides the secure means for web-based transactions by utilizing various other protocols such as SSL and
TLS.
B. Guarantees the integrity of a message during transmission, but it doesn't provide for non-repudiation.
C. GNU Privacy Guard (GnuPG or GPG) is a GPL Licensed alternative to the PGP suite of cryptographic software. Pretty
Good Privacy (PGP) is a freeware email encryption system.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 42, 46
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/GNU_Privacy_Guard
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 272

NEW QUESTION: 4
A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?
A. Anemia in renal failure is frequently caused by low serum iron and ferritin and corrected by oral iron and ferritin replacement therapy.
B. Transfusion is often begun as early as possible to prevent complications of anemia such as dyspnea and angina.
C. The renal secretion of erythropoiesis is decreased. The bone marrow requires erythropoietin to mature red blood cells.
D. Hematocrit levels usually remain slightly below normalin clients with renal failure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 16-22%. (B) Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells. (C) Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin.
Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. (D) Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.